Question: Throughout the Torah Portion of Shemos, Pharaoh is referred to as “Pharaoh” and other times as “the king of Egypt”. The contrast is most noticeable in ch.5: 1-5:

5:1 – Moses & Aaron said to Pharaoh…
5:2 – Pharaoh replied ….
5:3 – Moses & Aaron reply…
5:4 – The king of Egypt said to them ….
5:5 – And Pharaoh said ….

Why, in 5:4, is it “The king of Egypt” rather than Pharaoh? 5:4-5:5 are Pharaoh’s response to 5:3. Why, in the middle of Pharaoh’s response, does the reply switch from king of Egypt to Pharaoh?

Answer: I can’t answer your particular question, but this may provide some data and something to think about:

Zohar, Book of Exodus, Section 2, page 17a: When the Torah says “king of Egypt”, it means the angel appointed over Egypt. When it mentions “Pharaoh”, it means Pharaoh himself.

Fascinating Midrash. It is also reminiscent of the similar fact in Talmud Megillah 15b, on Megillas Esther (The Scroll of Esther): When it says “the king”, it means G-d. When it says “Achashverosh”, it means King Achashverosh himself.

In both of these events, G-d was using the non-Jewish nations as a way of shaping Israel. In some verses, his guiding hand becomes more apparent.

Best wishes,
Michoel Reach