I still don’t understand the law of milk & meat. If the Torah states that we are not to “cook a kid-goat in the milk of its mother,” why do we extrapolate and forbid any form of meat combined with milk and milk-related products?
I think your question implies a slight misconception about the ‘extrapolation’ of Jewish Law. According to Jewish tradition, Moses received both the Written and Oral Law from G-d on Mount Sinai; on top of this, he received the 13 rules of Biblical Exegesis (also known as the hermeneutic principals) which serve two main functions:
1) They can be used to derive new details of Law in response to changing situations; in other words, the extrapolation is not left solely up to human logic, but rather new details emerge through the blending of human sensibilities with the system of logic supplied by G-d himself on Mount Sinai.
2) They are the means by which the details of the Oral Law handed down at Sinai can be traced to their source in the Written Law.
It is the latter function in particular that is relevant to your question. The laws of meat and milk were given to Moses by G-d, and were subsequently taught to the Jewish people – it was G-d who informed Moses that the verse ‘ thou shalt not cook a kid in it’s mothers milk’ must not be limited to the case it presents. In other words, He told him that the laws of meat and milk are not limited either to a kid or to its mother’s milk. Thus, the Rabbis of the Talmud did not start with the verse and extrapolate the laws, but rather they started with the laws and used the 13 principles to see how they are implied in the verse; G-d phrased the commandment in the Written Law in a way that would incorporate all those details.
Yours sincerely,
Ari Lobel
[Reposted from the archives]
