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In Genesis we read accounts of the patriarchs having a number of wives. When was the practice stopped? Are there any Biblical and/or Talmudic references to marriage being one man-one wife?
There is no biblical injunction against a man marrying more than one wife. As you point out, in the Torah, this was an accepted practice. Around 1000 years ago the leader of Ashkenaz world Jewery, Rabbeinu Gershom, instituted several bans that were accepted as law and remain in effect until today. Along with prohibiting one from reading another person’s mail and prohibiting a man from divorcing his wife against her will, he placed a ban on polygamy. This ban has been upheld and adhered to amongst Ashkenaz Jewery since the ban’s institution.
Rabbi Moshe Rosenstein
As answered in the question regarding polygamy it was written that it was banned among the Ashkenaz Jewry. So does that mean that it is still continued among the Sephardic Jewry? One more thing:The ban that was imposed was it based on any Talmudic writings or was it imposed just like that. I mean I am glad that polygamy is banned but I want to know why did the Torah allow it in the first place. Was it because it was general practice during ancient times among all the cultures just like slavery so Torah didn’t ban it at that time cause that might prove inconvenient for the people at that time?
Among the Sephardic communities, some allow polygamy, others forbid it.
It was imposed a little over 1,000 years ago due to the sages of the time seeing that there were numerous problems arising as a result of the practice. Even during Talmudic times, polygamy did not create a harmonious situation. The relationship between the two wives of one man was called “tzaros” meaning “sufferings.”
Comment by ATR — March 14, 2007 @ 3:53 pm